Paul on marriage in 1 Corinthians 7

Criticism

Critics ask why the Church teaches that marriage is essential for full exaltation, when Paul says it is good for a man not to marry? (1 Corinthians 7:1)

To see citations to the critical sources for these claims, [[../CriticalSources|click here]]

Answer

The author of the question has misinterpreted Paul. The King James Version of 1 Corinthians 7꞉1-2 reads:

Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. [1 Cor 7:1-2, KJV]

The King James version of this passage is not clear as to who is saying "It is good for a man not to touch a woman." The original Greek for this verse is likewise unclear. However, the translators of the New Jerusalem Bible felt that this must have been a quote from Paul, so they render it, more clearly, as

Now for the questions about which you wrote. Yes, it is a good thing for a man not to touch a woman; yet to avoid immorality every man should have his own wife and every woman her own husband. [1 Cor 7:1-2, NJB]

which indicates that the words advising not to touch a woman are Paul's words in answer to some unspecified question. On the other hand, the English Standard Bible translates the original manuscript as

Now concerning the matters about which you wrote: "It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman." But because of the temptation to sexual immorality, each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband. [1 Cor 7:1-2, ESB]

which puts the statement into quotation marks and into the mouths of the Corinthians as part of their previous letter to him. And so Paul’s answer, that “each man should have his own wife and each woman her own husband” represents just the opposite advice from the New Jerusalem Bible. Which translation is correct? Well, Joseph Smith would have sided with the ESB translators, because the Joseph Smith Version has

Now concerning the things whereof ye wrote unto me, saying: It is good for a man not to touch a woman. Nevertheless, to avoid fornication, let every man have his own wife, and let every woman have her own husband. [1 Cor 7:1-2, JSV, emphasis added]

The New English Translation (NET) Version reads:

Now with regard to the issues you wrote about: “It is good for a man not to have sexual relations with a woman.”

So, Paul isn't saying that it IS good for a man not to marry (or, more properly, good not to have sex with a woman); what he is doing is quoting what the Corinthians have written to him in their letter, to which he is replying. He then goes on to correct this idea. (And, surely we can’t expect that Paul thought unmarried sex was a good idea! So, this necessarily requires marriage.)

The footnote from the NET Bible reads:

"Many recent interpreters believe that here again (as in 6:12-13) Paul cites a slogan the Corinthians apparently used to justify their actions. If this is so, Paul agrees with the slogan in part, but corrects it in the following verses to show how the Corinthians misused the idea to justify abstinence within marriage (cf. 8:1, 4; 10:23). See also G. D. Fee, “1 Corinthians 7:1 in the NIV,” JETS 23 (1980): 307-14."

So, Paul corrects a false idea which the Corinthians—and the critics—have expressed. We conclude that the Bible itself is ambiguous as to Paul's answer, and that Joseph Smith was certain that Paul's advice was simply that every man should ultimately have his own wife and vice versa.

Was Paul Married?

Paul may have been widowed or divorced at the time of his writing to the Corinthians, but we can be sure that he was married at one time. Paul's Judaic background would have required it. In his defense before the Jewish crowd outside the Roman barracks of the Antonian tower, Paul states that he was taught according to the perfect manner of the law of the fathers and was zealous in living that law (Acts 22:3). Again, in his defense before the Pharisees and Sadducees, Paul claims that he is a Pharisee, the son of a Pharisee (Acts 23:6). To the Galatians, Paul wrote that he was more zealous in fulfilling the requirements of his religion than others of his time (Gal 1:14). The emphasis that the Jews put on marriage as part of their law and tradition would certainly have been used against Paul in view of such statements if he had not been married, ^[1] especially given the fact that Paul was a member of the Sanhedrin, one of the qualifications for which was that a man must be married and the father of children.^[2]

But was Paul still married at the time of his writing to the Corinthians? The only evidence against it occurs in this same chapter of 1 Corinthinans, where Paul says

I say therefore to the unmarried and widows, It is good for them if they abide even as I. 1 Corinthians 7꞉8

Since Paul is advising the unmarried to continue in this state, even as he, it certainly seems to imply that he was unmarried at the time of his writing. On the other hand, Paul says later in this same letter

Have we not power to lead about a sister, a wife, as well as other apostles, and as the brethren of the Lord, and Cephas? 1 Corinthians 9꞉5.

How would he have the power to lead about a wife on his travels, like the other apostles did, if he was not married or if his wife had died? So this seems to indicate that Paul was married, but that he simply did not take his wife with him in his ministry. If this is the case, then this might be the sense in which he is advising the Corinthian saints to "abide even as" he. Indeed, this is exactly the counsel he gives the married saints in 1 Corinthians 7꞉29.

But this I say, brethren, the time is short: it remaineth, that both they that have wives be as though they had none

So, based on Corinthians alone, it is hard to say whether Paul was widowed or was still married at the time he wrote his epistle. Fortunately, we have other, non-biblical, writers who had access to knowledge that has now clearly been lost about Paul's marital state during the time of his ministry. Eusebius^[3], the fourth-century Catholic Historian, states confidently that Paul’s yokefellow, whom he addresses in Philippians 4꞉3 with these words,

And I intreat thee also, true yokefellow, help those women who laboured with me in the gospel, with Clement also, and with other my fellow-labourers. (Philippians 4꞉2–3)

is in fact his wife. The Greek syzyge, the word translated “yokefellow,” is often used to refer to a spouse. We also note that Eusebius' conclusion is based on a statement from Clement of Alexandria, who was writing sometime prior to 231 A.D. ^[4] when the traditions about Paul were still very recent. Finally, we should note that Ignatius, writing in the latter half of first century, states

I pray that, being found worthy of God, I may be found ... at the feet of Abraham, and Isaac, and Jacob; as of Joseph, and Isaiah, and the rest of the prophets; as of Peter, and Paul, and the rest of the apostles, that were married men.^[5]

What was Paul's teaching on marriage?

In this very same epistle to the Corinthians, Paul exhorts the saints to follow his example, especially in the ordinances of the church (1 Corinthians 11꞉1–2), and he specifically teaches that the husband is to honor the Lord as his head and the wife is to honor the husband as her head. Most importantly, he gives this clear exposition of the eternal principle:

neither is the man without the woman, neither the woman without the man, in the Lord. [1 Corinthians 11꞉11]

It is evident from the frequency of Paul’s counsel on marriage and family that he placed great importance on the subject. Paul exhorts the women in the Ephesian branch of the church to submit themselves to their own husbands (literally, become subject or obedient to), as they would to the Lord, comparing the husband and the family to Christ and the Church. (Ephesians 5:.) But he also charges the husbands to love their wives (Ephesians 5꞉25) as their Savior loved the church, so that they might sanctify and perfect their families through love. Paraphrasing one of the great commandments—to love one’s neighbor as oneself—Paul says, “So ought men to love their wives as their own bodies. He that loveth his wife loveth himself.” (Ephesians 5꞉28.) A husband is not to rule as a tyrant over his wife but is to preside in love. (See Ephesians 5꞉33.)

So why would Paul give the advice he did?

Paul says that he wishes (see 1 Corinthians 7꞉7) that all men were as he was. If Paul was indeed a married man traveling in the ministry without his wife, why would he want others to follow his example?

One reason Paul wrote to the Corinthians concerning these matters is found in verse 29 [1 Corinthians 7꞉29], where he states,

this I say, brethren, the time is short: it remaineth, that both they that have wives be as though they had none.

So the reason for his counsel about marriage is that the time is short. Paul also says in 1 Corinthians 7꞉26

I suppose therefore that this is good for the present distress, I say, that it is good for a man so to be.

Paul does not say what the present distress is, but whatever the problem was, he is clear that his advice is in regard to a situation that was temporary. When the present crisis was over, we would expect Paul’s advice to go back to the commandment explained in verse 2 – that every man should have his own wife and every woman her own husband.

Actually, Joseph Smith suggested what "the present distress" referred to when he amended 1 Cor 7:29 in the Joseph Smith Version to read

For this I say, brethren, the time that remaineth is but short, that ye shall be sent forth unto the ministry. Even they who have wives, shall be as though they had none; for ye are called and chosen to do the Lord’s work.

If Joseph Smith's understanding is correct, then, contrary to generally accepted interpretations, Paul is not condemning marriage in this chapter, but is replying to a problem regarding missionaries who desire to become married. His advice is that while they are on their missions (and he declared that the time for missionary work is short), and in view of the present distress (likely the need for committed missionaries), they should be concerned with the work of the Lord and not with family or personal matters. He then gives the reason for this admonition. He explains in 1 Corinthians 7꞉32 that the unmarried saints (and those who are as though unmarried) care for the things of the Lord, while a married man puts other things before the work of the Lord (1 Corinthians 7꞉33). Paul is simply reminding those who have been called to God’s work to put that calling first, even before earthly matters.

Should church officers be celibate?

In Paul’s last epistles, which were written to Timothy and Titus, he places emphasis on the need for marriage. In listing the qualities necessary for a bishop, Paul includes being married (see 1 Timothy 3꞉2) and being a good leader over his house: “For if a man know not how to rule his own house, how shall he take care of the church of God?” (1 Timothy 3꞉5; cf. Titus 1꞉5–9). Even those called “deacons” in that day (the Greek literally means “one who serves” or a “helper”) were to be married and have orderly households. (See 1 Timothy 3꞉10–13.)

Conclusion

The evidence of Paul’s writings leads to the conclusion that he not only tolerated marriage among the saints, but encouraged and exhorted them to marry and bear children. He indicated that marriage is an essential part of the gospel framework, and asserted that one of the signs of apostasy in the last days would be teachings against marriage. (See 1 Timothy 4꞉1–3.) Certainly Jesus was foremost in importance to Paul, just as he should be in the hearts of men today, and on occasion Paul had to remind men called to the ministry to be fully dedicated to the Lord’s work. Nevertheless, Paul understood and taught that in the presence of the Lord, the man will not be without the woman, neither the woman without the man.^[6]

In any case, however one chooses to read the scripture, Paul says immediately after (verse 6) that he is only giving his opinion about how to manage these things, not speaking authoritatively.

Endnotes

1. [note]  Mishnah, Aboth 5:21, trans. H. Danby, p. 458. “At five years old (one is fit) for the scripture, at ten years for the Mishnah, at thirteen for (the fulfilling of) the commandments, at fifteen for the Talmud, at eighteen for the bride-chamber, at twenty for pursuing (a calling), at thirty for authority, at forty for discernment, at fifty for counsel, at sixty to be an elder, at seventy for grey hairs, at eighty for special strength. …” See also David Smith, Life and Letters of St. Paul, p. 30f.
2. [note]  Sanhedrin 36:2.
3. [note]  Eusebius Pamphilius, Ecclesiasical History Book III, Chap 30, in Nicene and post-Nicene Fathers Series 2, Volume 1 (NPNF2-01: Church History, Life of Constantine, Oration in Praise of Constantine), Philip Schaff, ed., (Christian Literature Publishing Co., 1886) p. 162.
4. [note] Stromata, Book III, Chap 6, in Ante-Nicene Fathers, Volume 2 (ANF02. Fathers of the Second Century: Hermas, Tatian, Athenagoras, Theophilus, and Clement of Alexandria), Philip Schaff, ed., (Christian Literature Publishing Co., 1886) p. 390.
5. [note] Philadelphians, Chap 4, in Ante-Nicene Fathers, Volume 1 (ANF01. The Apostolic Fathers with Justin Martyr and Irenaeus), Philip Schaff, ed., (Christian Literature Publishing Co., 1886) p. 81.
6. [note]  C. Wilfred Griggs, "I Have a Question," Ensign (February 1976): 34.off-site