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The Bible and the Book of Mormon |
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Italics in the King James Bible indicate that a word not present in the original Greek, Hebrew, or Aramaic text has been added to the text to make the translation readable and comprehensible as well as sometimes clarify the meaning of the underlying text.
The Book of Mormon contains quotations of, echoes of, and allusions to the King James Bible. The quotations contain words that are italicized in the King James Bible.
The Book of Mormon sometimes retains the italicized words (without the italics!) from the King James Bible. In other cases it deletes the italicized word(s). In still other cases the Book of Mormon modifies the italicized words.
Some critics believe that the presence of the italics is an indication that Joseph Smith didn’t translate an ancient text and instead just plagiarized a copy of the King James Bible. Critic Jeremy T. Runnells, author of the CES Letter, explains that "[w]hen King James translators were translating the KJV Bible between 1604 and 1611, they would occasionally put in their own words into the text to make the English more readable. We know exactly what these words are because they’re italicized in the KJV Bible." He then asks "[w]hat are these 17th century italicized words doing in the Book of Mormon? Word for word? What does this say about the Book of Mormon being an ancient record?"[1] The assumption seems to be that the Book of Mormon, if truly a translation of an ancient text, should either not include these words or include different words that reflect the ancient, original text of the biblical passage in question. Since the italicized words from the KJV are included (which, as correctly indicated by Runnells, were inserted in the KJV beginning in the 1600s when the first edition of the KJV was created), this is evidence that the Book of Mormon is not ancient and that it was plagiarized, at least in part, from the King James Bible. Important to emphasize as a mild correction to Runnells that the italics did not merely make the English more readable but also inserted words not present in the original translation that clarified the underlying meaning of the Greek and Hebrew being translated.
Other critics look at how the Book of Mormon modifies the italics of the King James Bible that seem to suggest that Joseph was using a 1769 edition of the KJV to compose the text of the Book of Mormon. For example, critic Stan Larson argued the following in a 1993 book chapter relating to this subject:
The Book of Mormon text often revises biblical quotations at the very point where the original 1611 edition of the KJV prints the word or words in a different typeface in order to indicate that the words are not found in the Greek. This printing device was both inconsistently and sparsely applied in the 1611 KJV and improved in the 1769 printing. When Smith came to the KJV italics in the Sermon on the Mount, which he knew indicated that whatever was printed in italics was not in the original Greek, he would often either drop the word or revise it. The Book of Mormon sometimes revises the KJV italics that are only found in the 1769 and later printings. For example, the Book of Mormon drops the italics of the 1769 printing at Matthew 6:5, 7; 7:18 (3 Ne. 13:5, 7; 14:18), and the Book of Mormon changes the tense of the italics at Matthew 5:12 (3 Ne. 12:12). On the other hand, the Book of Mormon fails to revise places where the KJV text ought to have been printed in italics but is not. In two places the Book of Mormon copies the noun "men" from the KJV, where it is not in the original Greek and has been improperly added in the KJV.[2]:pp. 130–31
Thus, Larson is arguing essentially the same conclusion: that the Book of Mormon text cannot be a genuine translation of an ancient text. Though he’s arguing from a different angle. He doesn’t reason to his conclusion based on the mere presence of KJV italics in the Book of Mormon like Runnells. He argues this based on the Book of Mormon’s interaction with the KJV italics. In some cases, the italics are simply dropped. In some cases, the italics are revised. In some cases, there is a passage that should have an italicized word but doesn’t. These interactions occur in places only where the 1769 edition of the KJV and later printings place italics. According to Larson, these considerations date the Book of Mormon’s composition (and, more particularly, the Savior's Sermon at the Temple recorded in 3 Nephi) to the 1800s.
Critic David P. Wright did the same kind of analysis for the Book of Mormon's alleged interaction with the italics of KJV Isaiah.[3]:pp. 159–69. He concluded that the perceived interaction "demontrates in large measure the the BoM Isaiah derives from the KJV."[3]:p.159. More broadly, he uses this "evidence" to argue that "the Isaiah of the BoM is a revision of the KJV and not a translation of an ancient document."[3]:p.157.
Faithful Latter-day Saint author Stan Spencer (not Larson), following Wright,[3]:pp. 164–66. adds one more problem to account for. Spencer informs us that "[t]hese variants are usually minor but sometimes result in readings that conflict with the larger context of Isaiah’s message or create ungrammatical or even nonsensical sentences, particularly in the earliest text of the Book of Mormon."[4]:p. 46 Spencer was not using modern editions of the Book of Mormon when making his comparisons and contrasts with the King James Bible but rather Latter-day Saint linguist Royal Skousen's first edition of The Book of Mormon: The Earliest Text (2009) which is the best reconstruction of the text of the Book of Mormon so as to attempt to capture it as it was originally dictated by Joseph Smith (a second edition was published in 2022). Some thoughtful readers might ask if these omissions and revisions that are harmful to the grammar and sense of the KJV knock the Book of Mormon from its status as the "most correct book."
Thus this article will respond to four critical questions:
The fourth question is one that may arise from critics who respond to this article in the future or it may simply arise in the mind of the casual reader as they progress through this article: do the observations made by this author and the notions of translation subscribed to create a version of Mormonism that doesn't and/or cannot exist?
There is considerable debate among scholars of the Book of Mormon as to whether Joseph Smith knew the meaning of the italics.
For those that would argue that Joseph didn't know what the italics in the Bible meant, they might cite six lines of evidence:
For those that believe Joseph did know the meaning of the italics, they argue this conclusion citing typically 4–5 lines of evidence:[11]
Both perspectives are viable and, as of yet, still in the debate among scholars of the Book of Mormon today.
Stan Spencer laid out three hypotheses for the italicized words of the KJV in the Book of Mormon including how and why they were revised or omitted as they were revised and omitted.
Now we deal with the questions raised above.
The italics make the English text of the Bible more readable, clear, and comprehensible. If Joseph Smith and God were trying to keep a good translation of the text and especially one that is readable, clear, and comprehensible, why wouldn’t God and Joseph Smith just keep those same italics in the Book of Mormon? It’s nonsensical to claim that the mere presence of the italicized words is in and of itself damning.
Given that we don't know and likely can't know whether or not that Joseph Smith had knowledge of the meaning of the italics in the Bible, this question is likely unanswerable. If we don't know and likely can't know, though, it then follows that we likely have no rational reason to be concerned about this.
Another question that will certainly arise as anyone studies the issue is if the changes in italics knock the Book of Mormon from its pedestal as the "most correct book"?
First, it's important that we keep in mind what it means for the Book of Mormon to be the "most correct book". We have responded to that question elsewhere on the wiki. It may be important to keep in mind that Joseph called the Book of Mormon the most correct book in 1841 when the second edition of the Book of Mormon, with revisions done by Joseph Smith, was completed.
Second, it's perhaps important to pick among the hypotheses Spencer outlines above in relation to the changes in italics in the Book of Mormon. The author favors Spencer's theory but acknowledges that there may be some cases in which there really are ancient variants that correspond to the changes in italics made in the Book of Mormon. Thus a sort of hybrid of Spencer's and Roberts' theories.
Today's edition of the Book of Mormon is very readable and comprehensible, but the original manuscript of the Book of Mormon was less so. Stan Spencer in his article lines up passages from the King James version of Isaiah and Royal Skousen's reconstruction of the earliest text of the Book of Mormon (the text as it would presumably have fell from the lips of Joseph Smith) and shows how the changes sometimes have "negative effects on the sense, clarity, or grammar of the text" of the KJV Isaiah.[4]:p. 49 In some cases, the omissions and revisions are drastic enough to lead people into potentially incorrect understandings of various facts. This seems to be part of the reason why Spencer lines up the theories described above and proposes his Missing Words Hypothesis.
In order to give the fullest answer to this criticism, one would have to go through each of the omissions and revisions of italics and determine what sort of message is communicated by the drop or revision: how a person would interpret each passage given the omissions and revisions. They would then have to see if that message is an erroneous theological or ethical message about God.
Stan Spencer's paper, linked to/cited below, discusses 10 of these changes that are hurtful to the original biblical passages' sense and clarity.[4] Royal Skousen, a Latter-day Saint linguist and scholar of the textual history of the Book of Mormon has studied the italicized words and discussed them in volume 3, part 5 of his Book of Mormon Critical Text Project entitled The King James Quotations in the Book of Mormon.[17] We've listed here every change that could potentially deemed misleading regarding the intent of the biblical passages being quoted and edited and listed them here for commentary. In the left column will be the potentially misleading changes and in the right column will be commentary from the author of this article about why they don't need to appear threatening. Those that are dealing with this question might consider studying Skousen's volume and Spencer's article and, if they feel that there is a change in italics that they feel deserves commentary in the following table in this article, making that known with documentation to FAIR editors at this link. We will indicate in the table below whether the change in question is retained in the most recent edition of the Book of Mormon. These revisions are organized in the order they appear in the Book of Mormon
Supposed Harmful Change | Commentary |
---|---|
1 Nephi 20:5 ~ Isaiah 48:5. 1 Nephi 20:5 deletes the italicized it in Isaiah 48:5's "I have even from the beginning declared it to thee" creating the awkward "And I have even from the beginning declared to thee". | The text is indeed awkward but doesn't lead ineluctably away from understanding the intent of the passage. |
2 Nephi 8:17-18 ~ Isaiah 51:17-18. There are six omissions in italics and one addition that create awkward readings. The following is from the KJV Isaiah with omissions bolded and additions in carrots: "Awake, awake, stand up, O Jerusalem, which hast drunk at the hand of the Lord the cup of his fury; thou hast drunken the dregs of the cup of trembling, and wrung them out. There is <—And> none to guide her among all the sons whom she hath brought forth; neither is there any that taketh her by the hand<,> of all the sons that she hath brought up." Thus the verse now reads: "Awake, awake, stand up, O Jerusalem, which hast drunk at the hand of the Lord the cup of his fury—thou hast drunken the dregs of the cup of trembling wrung out—And none to guide her among all the sons she hath brought forth; neither that taketh her by the hand, of all the sons she hath brought up." | The passage is very awkward but doesn't lead ineluctably away from intent. At worst it just makes the passage awkward or incoherent, and the intent of the original passage is already taught elsewhere in the Book of Mormon. |
2 Nephi 15:25. In the earliest text of the Book of Mormon, the last sentence fragment states that "For all this his anger is not turned away, but his hand stretched out still. This instead of "his hand is stretched out still." This pattern is repeated in 2 Nephi 19:21, 20:4, and 24:27. | The omission seems to make the sentence awkward but not incomprehensible and not leading into inaccurate understandings of God. |
In 2 Nephi 16:5, the omission of "is" and "am" from the KJV’s "Woe is me for I am undone because I am a man of unclean lips and I dwell" makes this sentence ungrammatical and potentially confusing. | Indeed, ungrammatical and a bit confusing. Not incorrect though, and still leading into correct understanding of the passage's intent; and that's what matters most for this question. The most recent edition of the Book of Mormon has "unto" after "Woe is". |
In 2 Nephi 16:7, the omission of "it" from the KJV’s "he laid it [a live coal] upon my mouth" produces the illogical, "he laid upon my mouth." | In context, Isaiah is having God's holiness and purity transferred to him and he is becoming transformed by it. Thus this passage, implying that the seraph lays on Isaiah's mouth, is not necessarily out of alignment with the intent of the passage. The passage just means to communicate that God can forgive our sins and make us pure with his holiness, which is testified of throughout scripture. Noone is compelled to believing anything false by reading the scripture as it read originally. The modern edition of the Book of Mormon retains it. |
In verse 8, the omission of "am" from "Here am I send me" makes the English text awkward, at least. | Indeed, awkward. Not incorrect though, and still leading into correct understanding of the passage's intent; and that's what matters most for this question. |
In 2 Nephi 16:9, the KJV’s "Hear ye indeed but understand not and see ye indeed but perceive not" becomes "Hear ye indeed but they understand not and see ye indeed but they perceive not." This change results in an awkward switching back and forth between second person and third person and between the imperative and indicative moods. It also alters the meaning contrary to the statement in the next verse, which has God again dictating impediments to understanding and perception. | Spencer overplays the awkwardness and incorrectly perceives a change in meaning in the subsequent verse. The modern edition of the Book of Mormon changes some of the verbs to the past tense: "Hear ye indeed, but they understood not; and see ye indeed, but they perceived not." |
The omission of "it" from "ask it either in the" in 2 Nephi 17:11 implies, illogically, that the asking (not the sign) is to be done in the depths or heights. | It's uncertain why Spencer finds this so illogical. The message is virtually the same. The Lord is telling Ahaz to ask for the sign in either the heights or depths. Further, it's confirmed in places like the Book of Mormon that we can and should pray everywhere. The prophet Zenos in the book of Alma taught as much.[18] |
In 2 Nephi 17:17, the omission of "even" could lead the reader to wrongly believe that Judah was king of Assyria. The italicized "even" in that verse in the KJV is important because it discourages such a misinterpretation. | The even actually doesn't do hardly anything to discourage the reading of Judah as the king of Assyria. This problem has to be fixed with punctuation, which the original Book of Mormon text did not have and was added later by Joseph Smith and revised in subsequent editions of the Book of Mormon. Future editions of the Book of Mormon with better punctuators may be necessary. The modern edition omits "even". it may also need to alter the sentence structure much differently than the original Hebrew text to make sense of the passage. |
Similarly, the italicized "namely" that is omitted in the Book of Mormon from 2 Nephi 17:20 is important in clarifying that the king of Assyria is not the one hiring a razor; he is the razor. | This also doesn't provide much utility in clarifying the meaning of the text. Punctuation, scholarly commentary, and maybe other modification of the text may be necessary for future editions of the Book of Mormon. This isn't a fault in translation. The modern edition of the Book of Mormon also omits "namely". |
The replacement of "it" with "which" in 2 Nephi 17:23 muddles the meaning of Isaiah’s message. The text as it stands in the KJV makes sense — the deserted land, once fruitful, will be overrun with briars and thorns. With "which" in place of "it," the Book of Mormon appears to instead say, in an incomplete sentence, that briars and thorns will be purchased with a thousand silverlings (i.e., a thousand silver coins). | The text doesn't necessarily force you to read it that way but Spencer's reading makes sense. Even with it it doesn't really encourage a correct reading of the text. Really there should be a they instead of it and the sentence structure should be rearranged as to emphasize that the deserted land will become overrun with briars and thorns. Readers are probably not likely to spend too much time on this verse when it's just muddled as it is in the KJV and BoM. But the essential intent of the passage seems unharmed and, if the reader is reading the preceding and succeeding verses, they're most likely going to just interpret it as Isaiah speaking about a prior state of serenity and a subsequent state of disaster. This passage is merely "a negative oracle describing the dire consequences, particularly the subjectaion of Judah by the Assyrian Empire, that will befall Jerusalem and Judah as a result of Ahaz's refusal to accept Isaiah's promises."[19] The modern edition of the Book of Mormon retains "which" instead of it". |
The original version of 2 Nephi 19:5 in the earliest editions of the Book of Mormon deletes the italicized is from the KJV Isaiah 9:5 such that the KJV Isaiah 9:5 reads "For every battle of the warrior is with confused noise, and garments rolled in blood; but this shall be with burning and fuel of fire" and 2 Nephi 9:5 reads "For every battle of the warrior with confused noise, and garments rolled in blood; but this shall be with burning and fuel of fire." | The most likely way of interpreting this passage for reads is to see the first clause as the beginning of an accumulatio and still retaining the correct intent. |
3 Nephi 22:9 is part of a longer quotation of Isaiah 54. The King James version of Isaiah 54:9 reads "For this is as the waters of Noah unto me: for as I have sworn that the waters of Noah should no more go over the earth; so have I sworn that I would not be wroth with thee, nor rebuke thee." 3 Nephi 22:9 deletes the first is as such that the verse now reads "For this, the waters of Noah unto me, for as I have sworn that the waters of Noah should no more go over the earth, so have I sworn that I would not be wroth with thee." | Read in one way, the verse is awkward, but read in another, the Lord could be read to say that he is rhetorically commanding the waters to come unto him, which is still in line with the correct intent in mind. Either way the correct intent is discernible. |
None of the changes surveyed seem to knock the Book of Mormon from its status as the most correct book.
Notes
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